Axis scope mounts

I'm still confused as to the difference between 20 MOA and 0 MOA when ordering a scope base for my Axis. Can someone explain in plain English. Thanks

This is an explanation someone else gave and made sense to me.


Normally, your scope would be zeroed in (if bases and rings are machined and fitted true and level) close to the center of the range of your scope adjustment...so you can dial "up" for only about half the whole range of your scope, if needed, to compensate for your drops.


What the 20 MOA base does is tilt your scope. Now you have to re-adjust your scope "down" so you are lined up with your zero point. You "new" starting point for zero is now in the lower half of your scope adjustment "down" ~20 MOA, so you now have that 20MOA and the rest of the other half of the range of your scope adjustment to "dial up" for your drops.

Good.

And, of course, you might need that extra 20 moa of adjustment if you shoot long range. Depending on the cartridge, that may be 600-1200 yards. Anything short of that and you'll never have use of the extra 20 MOA. Therefore, a typical deer hunter would not bother with it. On the other hand, there are very few situations where having the extra range avail will hurt you.

That's a good way of thinking about it. Your average 3-9x40mm scope with a 1" tube will have about 80MOA of total elevation adjustment built in, which means it can only be adjusted for 40MOA of bullet drop. By putting the scope on a 20MOA rail, it effectively means it can compensate for 60MOA of drop. If your shooting scenarios don't include this much drop (a 308 zeroed at 200 yards, for example, will drop 40MOA between 900-1000 yards), then it's probably not necessary. It also keeps the reticule centered in the optics at slightly longer ranges, which is advantageous insofar as it uses better parts of the glass.

Thanks for that info guys, it really cleared it up. Sounds like I only need a 0 MOA for my type of shooting. John